So does this article prove that two uncountable infinities are equal? Can you tell us precisely what two entities have been proven equal in this article?
I understand aleph-0, aleph-1 and 2^aleph-0 and I also understand that if continuum hypothesis is true, then aleph-1 = 2^aleph-0. Is this what these mathematicians have proven, or have they proven something else?
I understand aleph-0, aleph-1 and 2^aleph-0 and I also understand that if continuum hypothesis is true, then aleph-1 = 2^aleph-0. Is this what these mathematicians have proven, or have they proven something else?