There is significant scientific evidence that most of the differences in employment observed between women and men and minorities and white men can be explained by socialization.
When conditions are set that reduce or control for these social factors (including implicit bias) the differences in performance that James Demore attributes to "biological" factors disappear.
How is this not related to the bulk of his claims?
When conditions are set that reduce or control for these social factors (including implicit bias) the differences in performance that James Demore attributes to "biological" factors disappear.
How is this not related to the bulk of his claims?