Maybe a dumb question, but I have always wondered this.
Won't UBI just shift the poverty line to a value above whatever it is now(0 maybe), without changing the income inequality/wealth difference. In a hyper-simplistic hypothetical scenario, if it's assumed that a person is poor if he has $0, with UBI, he'll have $X/month, making him above the poverty line. But now the entire country, rich and poor, have at least $X/month, which might translate to an increase in cost of all goods/services by $X, rendering the poor as poor and rich as rich.
Won't UBI just shift the poverty line to a value above whatever it is now(0 maybe), without changing the income inequality/wealth difference. In a hyper-simplistic hypothetical scenario, if it's assumed that a person is poor if he has $0, with UBI, he'll have $X/month, making him above the poverty line. But now the entire country, rich and poor, have at least $X/month, which might translate to an increase in cost of all goods/services by $X, rendering the poor as poor and rich as rich.