Could someone explain why this would dilute voting power?
Voting power of an investor = votes held by investor / total votes
While the dividend will slash the economic ownership of my class A stock, that stock still has the same voting power because the number of votes and distribution of those votes has not changed.
Voting power of an investor = votes held by investor / total votes
While the dividend will slash the economic ownership of my class A stock, that stock still has the same voting power because the number of votes and distribution of those votes has not changed.
Am I missing something?