If you're saying that freedom of speech implicitly and only implicitly existed as a Right of Man before the First Amendment was ratified, that would be mistaken. There was a Bill of Rights passed in the English Parliament after the overthrow of James II. Our Bill of Rights was a descendent of their Bill of Rights.
As for unalienable, we 'aliened' those rights by limiting who they applied to. Whenever you hear States' Rights, that's just a dog whistle translation of aliening some people's rights.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bill_of_Rights_1689
As for unalienable, we 'aliened' those rights by limiting who they applied to. Whenever you hear States' Rights, that's just a dog whistle translation of aliening some people's rights.