The reason the comparison is objectionable is because 'theft' is not the same as 'failing to pay a fee'. Theft implies a non-duplicatable object has passed from the possession of one entity to the possession of another thus depriving the first entity of any use or advantage from it.
While we might disagree on the moral shading of copyright infringement can we agree that piracy and theft are different things?
While we might disagree on the moral shading of copyright infringement can we agree that piracy and theft are different things?