He asked a general question regarding authorities to OGC. What's the bar of "availing" himself to a channel? If he sent an email to OGC asking how their weekend was, he would have technically "consulted with OGC", would he not?
As it stands, there is zero evidence (from either side) that Snowden complained to the proper channels.
And why would he when his plan was to leave the country with 1.5 million classified documents?
As it stands, there is zero evidence (from either side) that Snowden complained to the proper channels.
And why would he when his plan was to leave the country with 1.5 million classified documents?