Yes, I agree. The history of philosophy is an important part of philosophy, not all of philosophy. I studied the subject nearly 30 years ago and can only recall the history courses as having a decisive Western bias (though not a monopoly). I believe all the courses were correctly labeled, and I can remember at least one embarrassed explanation that other traditions could not be included.
I am curious how the bias might affect topics like contemporary epistemology, logic, or the philosophy of science or of mathematics?
I am curious how the bias might affect topics like contemporary epistemology, logic, or the philosophy of science or of mathematics?