On a simple mathematical basis, this is false.
Consider two groups of candidates for a scholarship, A and B. We want to select all candidates that have an 80% or better chance of graduation. Group A comes from a population where the chance of graduation is distributed uniformly from 0% to 100% and group B is from one where the chance is distributed uniformly from 10% to 90%, with the same average but less variation in group B.
Now suppose that we select without bias or inaccuracy all the applicants that have an 80% or better chance of graduation. That means we select a subset of A with a range of 80% to 100% and a subset of B with a range from 80% to 90%. The average graduation rate of scholarship winners from group A will be 90% and that from group B will be 85%.
But we haven't been biased against A. We've selected according to the exact same perfect evaluation process and criterion from both groups. It was just their prior distribution that was different.
The actual applicant groups for jobs or financing in the real world, when they are divided by demographic factors like age, sex, race, and educational level, will almost always manifest different variances in success levels even when the averages are the same. That makes this test useless and mathematically illiterate.
And when we use a normal distribution, as we should always expect given the central limit theorem, the mathematical problems get even more intense.
This short comment is not up to pg's usual high standards for his essays.
Consider two groups of candidates for a scholarship, A and B. We want to select all candidates that have an 80% or better chance of graduation. Group A comes from a population where the chance of graduation is distributed uniformly from 0% to 100% and group B is from one where the chance is distributed uniformly from 10% to 90%, with the same average but less variation in group B.
Now suppose that we select without bias or inaccuracy all the applicants that have an 80% or better chance of graduation. That means we select a subset of A with a range of 80% to 100% and a subset of B with a range from 80% to 90%. The average graduation rate of scholarship winners from group A will be 90% and that from group B will be 85%.
But we haven't been biased against A. We've selected according to the exact same perfect evaluation process and criterion from both groups. It was just their prior distribution that was different.
The actual applicant groups for jobs or financing in the real world, when they are divided by demographic factors like age, sex, race, and educational level, will almost always manifest different variances in success levels even when the averages are the same. That makes this test useless and mathematically illiterate.
And when we use a normal distribution, as we should always expect given the central limit theorem, the mathematical problems get even more intense.
This short comment is not up to pg's usual high standards for his essays.